bigd9832
Chicago, IL
64, joined Oct. 2007
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http://www.saviourofall.org/Tracts/Eons2.html
The fact that the same word translated “for ever”; “ever-lasting,” and “eternal” is also translated “world” is a shocking surprise to many believers. Had God meant “world” in these places He would have used the Greek word “kosmos” which means world. In the best literal translations the words “aion” and “aionios” are consistently rendered “age” and “age-abiding” or transliterated “eon” and “eonian.” See Rotherham’s Emphasized Version; Young’s Literal Translation; or The Concordant Literal New Testament.
God made the eons (Heb.1:2) and fitted them out (Heb.11:3) for the accomplishing of His purpose (Eph.3:8-11; 1:9-11). During the eonian times, sin, suffering and death enter God’s creation, serve their purpose and are abolished by Jesus Christ (1Tim.4:9-11; Col.1:20; 1Cor.15:22-28; Rom.5:18,19; Phil. 2:9-11; John 12:32,33; 1John 3:8).
The existence of God is not confined to the eons. He made the eons; therefore, He existed before they began. At the conclusion of the eons Jesus Christ will do away with sin (Heb.9:26) and will abolish death (1 Cor.15:22-26). All will then be subjected to God and God will be All in all (1 Cor.15:27,28). Therefore, God continues to exist after the eons have ended. The statement “from everlasting to everlasting thou art God” (Psa.90:2) is literally “from age to age thou art God.” This does not limit God’s existence to the eons any more than the statement, “I am the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob” (Ex.3:6), excludes Him from being the God of others also. The same is true of the reference to Him as “the eonian God” (Rom.16:25,26).
During the present wicked eon (Gal.1:4)...
Much more where that came from.
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bigd9832
Chicago, IL
64, joined Oct. 2007
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1. The translators have not been consistent in their work, but have translated the Ancient Greek term 'aion' into many different English terms. Perhaps according to their own opinions...
a) ages - Eph.2:7, Col. 1:26
b) course - Eph. 2:2
c) world - Matt. 12:32, 13:22, 39, 49, Rom. 2:12, 1Tim. 16:17, etc.
d) eternal - Eph. 3:11, 1Tim. 1:17,
e) for ever - Matt. 21:19, Mark 11:14, Luke 1:55, John 6:51, 58, etc.
f) never (with a negative) - Mark 3:29, John 4:14, 8:51, 52, 10:28, 11:26, 13:8
g) ever - Heb. 7:24
h) for evermore - Heb. 7:28
i) while the world standeth - 1Cor. 8:13
If 'aion' really meant 'forever' in an absolute sense, all of these other translations would not have been necessary.
2. Forever can only be singular. No knowledge of the Ancient languages is necessary to know this. A plural form of the word would be impossible. And yet the plural form is used frequently...
AV Eph 2:7 That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in [his] kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.
Here the term 'age' can not mean 'forever' in the absolute, or else it's plural form would make it meaningless. Imagine what this verse might say if 'aion' was translated as 'forevers.'
AV Col 1:26 [Even] the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints
For further proof, again this verse would make no sense if 'aion' was translated 'forevers.'
3. 'Forever' and/or 'eternity' has no beginning. And yet the
Scriptures clearly discusses a time before 'eternity'...
AV 1C 2:7 But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, [even] the hidden [wisdom], which God ordained before the world unto our glory:
AV 2Ti 1:9 Who hath saved us, and called [us] with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,
AV Ti 1:2 In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began
As another act of irreverence, the term 'world' here is substituted for the plural form of 'aion.'
If the word 'aion' truly meant 'world' why just carry that significance here? Why not consistently translate it as 'world' through out the Scriptures?
4. How can there be an end to 'eternity?' The Scriptures talk about the end of 'aion.' Does 'eternity' have an end?
AV Mt 13:39 The enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the world; and the reapers are the angels.
The term 'world' again becomes a stand-in for the concept of 'forever.' This harvest is at the end of forever. So says the KJV.
AV 1C 10:11 Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.
Evidently the 'world' has more than one end, as the Ancient Greek term 'aion' is, again, in it's plural form.
This shows that the eons not only have an end, but many ends rather than not any at all (as in 'forever').
AV Hb 9:26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
Now this one is kinda tricky. The first usage of the term 'world' is actually correct. 'World' is representing the Ancient Greek term 'kosmos.'
However, the second usage of the term 'world' is once again rendered from the Ancient Greek term 'aion.'
Once again, in this verse, the term 'aion' is in it's plural form. This proves that the translators have not been true or consistent to the sacred text.
We also know that the world does not end when the Lord appears, neither did the ages end.
This verse is yet another proof that the 'eons' have an end and do not last 'forever.'
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